WGU Cybersecurity-Architecture-and-Engineering Dumps - 100% Cover Real Exam Questions (Updated 215 Questions) [Q86-Q104]

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WGU Cybersecurity-Architecture-and-Engineering Dumps - 100% Cover Real Exam Questions (Updated 215 Questions)

Real Cybersecurity-Architecture-and-Engineering dumps - Real WGU dumps PDF

NEW QUESTION # 86
Which security technique should be used to prevent data exfiltration?

  • A. Intrusion prevention software (IPS)
  • B. Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
  • C. Intrusion detection software (IDS)
  • D. Data loss prevention (DLP)

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Data loss prevention (DLP).
According to WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), DLP technologies monitor and control the transfer of sensitive information outside of the corporate network, preventing unauthorized data exfiltration whether by internal misuse or external threats.
MFA (A) strengthens authentication but does not monitor data transfer. IDS (B) detects intrusions but does not prevent data loss. IPS (D) blocks network attacks but is not specifically designed for preventing exfiltration of sensitive data.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Data loss prevention (DLP) solutions protect sensitive data by monitoring, detecting, and blocking potential data exfiltration attempts."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Data Protection Technologies


NEW QUESTION # 87
Management has asked its networking team to recommend a solution for direct communication between multiple virtual networks in the cloud. The solution must utilize the least amount of administrative effort.
Which solution meets the requirements?

  • A. Remote Desktop Protocol
  • B. Virtual network peering
  • C. Domain name system
  • D. Virtual local area network

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is A - Virtual network peering.
According to the WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) Study Guide, virtual network peering enables direct communication between two or more virtual networks without the need for gateways, VPNs, or additional configurations. It allows seamless interconnectivity with minimal administrative overhead. Peered networks can communicate as if they were part of the same network, which meets the organization's request for the least administrative effort.
Other options like Virtual LANs (B) operate within the same network and don't span multiple virtual networks. Remote Desktop Protocol (C) is used for remote access, not network interconnection. Domain Name System (D) resolves names to IP addresses but does not establish communication pathways between networks.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Virtual network peering provides a low-latency, high-bandwidth connection between virtual networks with minimal administrative setup. It is the recommended solution for direct communication across cloud-based virtual networks."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Network Architectures Module


NEW QUESTION # 88
A small start-up is setting up its first network, and it needs to ensure that its network security is adequate. The start-up is aware of the latest cybersecurity threats and the need for strong security measures. In addition to network security, the start-up wants to ensure that it has a disaster recovery plan in place in case of any unexpected events.
Which approach will meet the needs of the start-up?

  • A. Intrusion detection system (IDS)
  • B. Bootstrapping
  • C. Packet filtering
  • D. Virtual private network (VPN)

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A - Intrusion detection system (IDS).
As outlined in WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), an IDS helps monitor network traffic for suspicious activities and security threats, making it a fundamental component of securing a network for a start-up. It enables early detection of attacks, contributing both to cybersecurity defense and incident response efforts.
Packet filtering (B) is a limited firewall technique and not as comprehensive. Bootstrapping (C) is a startup or initialization process, not a security measure. VPN (D) secures remote access but does not inherently monitor for threats.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"An intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and potential threats, enhancing a network's security posture and supporting incident detection."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Network Security Monitoring and Defense Here are your fully verified and properly formatted answers for this final batch, based on WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) official materials:


NEW QUESTION # 89
Which risk management strategy will ensure the secure configuration and deployment of a new online banking system and help prevent credit card fraud?

  • A. Use of regular system backups to an off-site location
  • B. Configuration of the system to disable all email services on all workstations
  • C. Implementation of real-time transaction monitoring
  • D. Implementation of a strict firewall policy to restrict access to the system's server

Answer: C

Explanation:
Real-time transaction monitoringhelps detect and respond to fraudulent activities (e.g., unauthorized access, anomalous transactions) as they happen. It's critical in high-risk environments likeonline banking systems.
FFIEC IT Examination Handbook (Retail Payment Systems):
"Real-time fraud detection systems monitor for suspicious or anomalous transactions that may indicate identity theft, account takeover, or credit card fraud." This is anactive, risk-aware controlthat's far more effective than backups or email restrictions for this use case.
#WGU Course Alignment:
Domain:Security Operations and Monitoring
Topic:Implement real-time monitoring systems for financial fraud detection


NEW QUESTION # 90
A government agency is evaluating its business continuity plan to ensure that its operations can continue during a crisis.
What is the term used to describe the critical services that must be maintained during a disruption?

  • A. Recovery point objective (RPO)
  • B. Disaster recovery (DR)
  • C. Business continuity planning (BCP)
  • D. Mission essential functions (MEFs)

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is D - Mission essential functions (MEFs).
WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) specifies that mission essential functions (MEFs) are those activities that must be maintained or resumed quickly during or after a disruption to ensure continuity of critical operations, particularly for government agencies.
BCP (A) is the plan itself. DR (B) focuses on IT and system recovery. RPO (C) measures acceptable data loss but does not define critical services.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Mission essential functions (MEFs) are critical activities that must be performed continuously or resumed quickly after disruption to support business or agency operations."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Continuity of Operations Planning


NEW QUESTION # 91
A healthcare organization has experienced a ransomware attack that has resulted in the encryption of all patient medical records. The organization has backups, but restoring the data will take severaldays, and during that time, patient care will be significantly diminished.
What is the most important factor to consider when evaluating the severity of the ransomware attack?

  • A. Threat actors
  • B. Likelihood
  • C. Impact
  • D. Risk

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Impact.
According to WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) materials, when evaluating the severity of an incident, the immediate and potential impact on operations, patient care, finances, or reputation is the most critical factor. In this scenario, the interruption to patient care due to encrypted records signifies a major operational impact, making it the most important consideration.
Threat actors (A) identify who is behind the attack, not the severity. Risk (B) encompasses impact and likelihood but is broader. Likelihood (D) concerns the probability of an event happening, not its current severity.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Impact refers to the actual or potential harm that results from a security incident, including effects on operations, financial loss, or harm to individuals."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Incident Response and Management


NEW QUESTION # 92
An IT organization has recently migrated its servers to the cloud. The security team needs to delegate administrative control of multiple cloud services to various administrators inside the company. This team needs a granular solution that will offer the most flexibility while maintaining a secure posture.
What is the best solution?

  • A. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
  • B. Role-based access control (RBAC)
  • C. Kerberos
  • D. Open Authorization (OAuth)

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Role-based access control (RBAC).
WGU KFO1 / D488 course material emphasizes that RBAC allows administrators to assign permissions based on roles rather than individual users. This method provides granular control and flexibility, allowing the organization to efficiently manage access rights across multiple cloud services while maintaining a strong security posture.
OAuth (A) and SAML (B) are protocols for authentication and authorization, not detailed access control models. Kerberos (D) is used for secure authentication within a network but does not provide the granular delegation capabilities needed for cloud service administration.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Role-based access control (RBAC) provides a scalable and manageable model to assign permissions to users based on their organizational roles, ensuring flexibility and maintaining secure delegation of administrative tasks."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Access Control Models


NEW QUESTION # 93
Why is business continuity planning essential?

  • A. It ensures that the company will avoid asset loss.
  • B. It allows for succession planning.
  • C. It allows for the quickest return to business operations.
  • D. It ensures that the company will be profitable.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Business continuity planning (BCP) is essential because it ensures that an organization can quickly resume its critical functions after a disruption. The key aspects include:
* Minimizing downtime: Strategies to restore business operations as quickly as possible.
* Risk management: Identifying potential threats and creating plans to mitigate their impact.
* Data recovery: Ensuring that data can be restored quickly in the event of a loss.
* Communication plans: Establishing protocols for communicating with employees, customers, and stakeholders during and after a disruption.
The primary goal of BCP is to ensure the quickest return to business operations, maintaining service levels and minimizing financial losses.
References
* Andrew Hiles, "The Definitive Handbook of Business Continuity Management," Wiley.
* Michael Wallace and Lawrence Webber, "The Disaster Recovery Handbook," AMACOM.


NEW QUESTION # 94
In which state is data considered information?

  • A. Processed
  • B. Input
  • C. Unprocessed
  • D. Raw

Answer: A

Explanation:
Data is considered information when it has been processed and organized in a meaningful way. Raw data in its unprocessed state is not useful until it undergoes processing to become interpretable and actionable information. Processing can involve sorting, aggregating, and analyzing data to extract valuable insights.


NEW QUESTION # 95
A company has recently implemented a hybrid cloud deployment. The security team has been notified about thousands of failed attempts to connect to routers and switches in the on-premises network. A solution must be implemented to block connections after three unsuccessful SSH attempts on any network device.

  • A. Data Loss Prevention
  • B. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
  • C. Firewall

Answer: B

Explanation:
AnIntrusion Prevention System (IPS)detects and blocks malicious activity in real time based on defined policies or behavior patterns. IPS tools can enforcerate limiting,connection attempts, and evenauto- blockingafter repeated failures.
NIST SP 800-94 Rev. 1:
"Intrusion prevention systems not only detect potential incidents but actively prevent attempts such as brute- force attacks on services like SSH." Firewalls may filter traffic, but only an IPSactively terminates or blocks behavior-based threats like repeated failed logins.
#WGU Course Alignment:
Domain:Network Security
Topic:Deploy and configure IPS for automated protection against brute-force attacks


NEW QUESTION # 96
Which item is an input device?

  • A. CD
  • B. Printer
  • C. Scanner
  • D. Flash Drive

Answer: C

Explanation:
* An input device is any hardware component that allows a user to enter data into a computer.
* A scanner is an input device that converts physical documents into digital format.
* The other options:
* Printer is an output device.
* Flash drive is a storage device.
* CD can be both storage and media for input/output depending on the context but is not primarily used for direct data input.
* Therefore, a scanner is the correct answer for an input device.
References:
* "Introduction to Computer Science" by ITL Education Solutions Limited, which discusses input and output devices.
* "Digital Fundamentals" by Thomas L. Floyd, which includes information on various peripherals.


NEW QUESTION # 97
What is the role of the CPU in a computing environment?
Choose 2 answers

  • A. Directing electrical current over the circuit board
  • B. Connecting components to the system unit
  • C. Storing data as it is being processed
  • D. Containing an arithmetic logic unit (ALU) that performs arithmetic and logic operations
  • E. Carrying out the instructions of a computer program

Answer: D,E

Explanation:
* TheCentral Processing Unit (CPU)is the primary component of a computer that performs most of the processing inside a computer.
* Carrying out the instructions of a computer program: The CPU executes program instructions, which are the basic tasks that tell the computer what to do.
* Containing an arithmetic logic unit (ALU): The ALU performs all arithmetic and logic operations, such as addition, subtraction, and comparison.
* The CPU also manages data flow between the computer's other components.
* It fetches instructions from memory, decodes them, and then executes them, which involves performing calculations and making decisions.
References:
"Computer Organization and Design: The Hardware/Software Interface" by David A. Patterson and John L.
Hennessy.
"Modern Processor Design: Fundamentals of Superscalar Processors" by John Paul Shen and Mikko H.
Lipasti.


NEW QUESTION # 98
Which IT role is responsible for the installation and maintenance of hardware and software that make up a computer network?

  • A. Web administrator
  • B. Network administrator
  • C. Database support specialist
  • D. IT manager

Answer: B

Explanation:
The IT role responsible for the installation and maintenance of hardware and software that make up a computer network is the Network Administrator. Their responsibilities include:
* Network installation: Setting up and configuring network hardware, such as routers, switches, firewalls, and servers.
* Network maintenance: Ensuring the network operates smoothly, performing regular updates, and troubleshooting issues.
* Security management: Implementing security measures to protect the network from unauthorized access, attacks, and breaches.
* Performance monitoring: Monitoring network performance and making necessary adjustments to optimize speed and reliability.
Therefore, the Network Administrator is the correct role for these responsibilities.
References
* William Stallings, "Data and Computer Communications," Pearson.
* Andrew S. Tanenbaum and David J. Wetherall, "Computer Networks," Pearson.


NEW QUESTION # 99
Which risk management strategy will ensure the secure configuration and deployment of a new supply chain management system and prevent identity theft?

  • A. Use of a strict firewall policy to restrict access to the system's server
  • B. Configuration of the system to disable all USB ports on all workstations
  • C. Implementation of regular vulnerability scans and patch management
  • D. Implementation of multifactor authentication for all user accounts

Answer: D

Explanation:
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)mitigates identity theft by requiring two or more factors (something you know, have, or are) for access. This significantly raises the difficulty of account compromise, especially in environments with sensitive supply chain data.
NIST SP 800-63B (Digital Identity Guidelines):
"MFA significantly reduces the likelihood of credential compromise and is strongly recommended for all user accounts accessing critical systems." While patching and firewalls are important, MFAdirectly addresses identity theftprevention.
#WGU Course Alignment:
Domain:Access Control and Identity Management
Topic:Implement MFA for secure user authentication


NEW QUESTION # 100
A project manager is working on a project that involves securing the network of a tall building. The manager is tasked with managing these risks effectively to ensure the successful completion of the project within a given time frame and budget. The manager identified multiple potential risks associated with the project.
What is the next step in the risk management life cycle?

  • A. Identify
  • B. Review
  • C. Assess
  • D. Control

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Assess.
As per WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) materials, after risks have been identified, the next step in the risk management life cycle is to assess them. Assessment involves analyzing and prioritizing the risks based on their potential impact and likelihood. Only after assessment can proper strategies be formulated for controlling and mitigating the risks.
Identification (A) occurs before assessment, while reviewing (B) and controlling (D) happen later in the process.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Following the identification of risks, the risk management process proceeds to risk assessment, where risks are analyzed and prioritized based on likelihood and impact to guide mitigation efforts."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Risk Management Process


NEW QUESTION # 101
A software development company uses file transfer protocol (FTP) to transfer software code between different teams.
Which security control is essential for protecting the integrity of software code that is transferred using FTP?

  • A. Enforcing strict access controls can limit the number of users with access to the FTP server and prevent unauthorized access.
  • B. Implementing intrusion detection and prevention systems can help detect and prevent unauthorized access to the FTP server and software code.
  • C. Regularly backing up the software code stored in the FTP server and having a disaster recovery plan can help ensure the integrity of the software code.
  • D. Calculating and comparing the hash values of the software code before and after transfer using FTP can help detect any changes and ensure the integrity of the code.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is A - Calculating and comparing the hash values of the software code before and after transfer using FTP can help detect any changes and ensure the integrity of the code.
According to WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), verifying the integrity of transferred files can be done by using cryptographic hash functions. Comparing pre- and post-transfer hashes ensures that the data was not tampered with during transmission.
Intrusion detection (B) focuses on unauthorized access. Access control (C) protects the server but does not ensure file integrity. Backups (D) provide data recovery but do not validate file integrity during transfers.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Hashing verifies data integrity by allowing a comparison of original and received file values, ensuring no tampering occurred during transit."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Data Integrity Assurance


NEW QUESTION # 102
An IT team must allow on-premises users to log in to the Azure portal using their corporate credentials.
Which strategy should be used to enable identity federation in this scenario?

  • A. Encrypting with Transport Layer Security (TLS)
  • B. Deploying a hardware-based two-factor authentication (2FA) solution
  • C. Configuring third-party authentication with Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
  • D. Integrating with lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP)

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 103
What is an information system?

  • A. A database utility from a third party
  • B. The computer hardware components
  • C. The hardware that allows human-computer interactions
  • D. A collection of data to support an organization

Answer: D

Explanation:
An information system is a coordinated set of components designed to collect, store, and process data, and to deliver information, knowledge, and digital products. Organizations use information systems to support operations, management, and decision-making. This includes both the technical components (hardware, software, databases, and networks) and the human components (people and processes).


NEW QUESTION # 104
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